comptia a+ customer lcd panel free sample

The Computer Technology Industry Association (CompTIA) is the non-profit trade association that provides professional certifications for those looking to gain professional employment in the Information Technology (IT) industry.

CompTIA A+ certification is necessary for anyone beginning a career in information technology (IT) as well as those with established careers. CompTIA A+ practice tests and other resources are available for professionals who need to earn or renew their CompTIA A+ certification.

Our free CompTIA A+ tests are designed to help you learn the material. Actual questions and explanations. No registration required. View the answer explanations at the end to better understand why an answer is correct or incorrect.

CompTIA A+ certification requires that a candidate successfully pass two different exams, showing proficiency in all aspects of IT including hardware, software, networking, security, and troubleshooting.

This examination measures the necessary skills for an entry-level IT position. The CompTIA A+ 220-901 includes five main domains, each with several subdomains. Each domain’s representation on the exam is listed below.

Following are examples of subdomains tested under each domain. Please note these lists are just samples, and are not representative of the entire test. It is extremely important to study your CompTIA A+ practice tests in order to be completely prepared. For more information, check out this official resource.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to mobile devices. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to IT networking. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to virtualization and cloud computing. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

Please remember that the above are just examples of what can be found under each domain of the CompTIA A+ 220-1001. You can view the full content outline here.

This examination primarily covers proficiency in the areas of software, operating systems, and security. The CompTIA A+ 220-1002 includes four main domains, each with several subdomains. Each domain’s representation on the exam is listed below.

Following are examples of subdomains tested under each domain. Please note these lists are just samples, and are not representative of the entire test. You can view the whole CompTIA 220-1002 outline here.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to Operating Systems. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to software troubleshooting. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

This domain shows understanding and proficiency in all areas related to operational procedures. Some examples of subdomains under this domain are listed below.

Please remember that the above are just examples of what can be found under each domain of the CompTIA A+ 220-1002. You can view the official outline here.

CompTIA A+ Certification testing is provided by Pearson VUE and administered year-round. Visit Pearson VUE in order to find a local authorized testing center and to schedule your exam.

Successful completion of the CompTIA A+ is necessary for any person looking to be a professional in the Information Technology (IT) industry. Be sure that you are studying your CompTIA A+ practice tests.

The CompTIA A+ examination is an important step in beginning your career in IT. To register for your CompTIA A+ and begin on your CompTIA A+ practice tests, please visit Pearson Vue.

The CompTIA A+ 220-1001 and 220-1002 include 9 domains - hardware, networking, mobile devices, virtualization & cloud computing, and hardware & network troubleshooting, operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. Each of these domains also includes subdomains.

You are replacing the CPU in a laptop. You have properly disassembled it to a point where you can see the motherboard. What is your next logical step?

Explanation: With the motherboard in view, you can see the CPU fan assembly. It will be attached to the motherboard in several places. Be sure you find all of the mount points and do not bend the assembly.

Explanation: The keyboard ribbon connectors (and others in the notebook) use a Zero Insertion Force socket to secure the connection. It is loosened by lifting the tabs on either side of the socket, or gently working it loose with a small screwdriver.

Explanation: Resistive touch screen technology uses two sheets of glass separated by spacers. When pressure is applied to the top sheet of glass, it bends to make contact with the bottom sheet and type the letter or press the button under the point of contact.

Explanation: Human skin is capable of conducting electricity. Capacitive touch screens use this trait to execute the action the user wishes to perform.

You hibernate your docked laptop at the office to save time when starting it back up at home. When you power it up at home, you discover that while typing emails, some of your keystrokes are misinterpreted by the system. For example, when you type the letter O it appears as a 6 and a P is an *.  What is the quickest way to fix this?

Explanation: The keyboard Num Lock was set to ON by the external keyboard used by the docking station. Hibernation preserved this setting. Although restarting the machine will fix this, it is quicker to simply turn it off.

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a type of protocol supported on the Internet that allows you to easily transfer files from your computer to another computer. To use FTP, you need the address of a server that supports FTP and a client software package that supports FTP running on your computer. This protocol runs in the OSI model Application Layer.

Explanation: Remember, FTP also allows for access in both directions. FTP teams up with Telnet to transparently log you on to the FTP server and then provides for the transfer of files. Accessing a host is only the first step. Users must then be subjected to an authentication login that’s probably secured with passwords and usernames placed there by the systems administrator to restrict access.  FTP is part of the TCP/IP stack, and since it is connection-oriented, it can verify TCP is functioning.

Explanation: A firewall can greatly improve network security and reduce risks to hosts on the subnet by filtering inherently insecure services. As a result, the subnet network environment is exposed to fewer risks, since only selected protocols will be able to pass through the firewall. A firewall also provides the ability to control access to site systems. For example, some hosts can be made reachable from outside networks, whereas others can be effectively sealed off from unwanted access.  Privacy is of great concern to certain sites, since what would normally be considered innocuous information might actually contain clues that would be useful to an attacker. Using a firewall, some sites wish to block services such as finger and Domain Name Service.  If all access to and from the Internet passes through a firewall, the firewall can log accesses and provide valuable statistics about network usage. A firewall, with appropriate alarms that sound when suspicious activity occurs, can also provide details on whether the firewall and network are being probed or attacked.

Explanation: Another idea in implementing security for wireless LAN segments is to create a wireless demilitarized zone (WDMZ). Depending on the level of implementation, creating WDMZs using firewalls or routers can be costly. WDMZs are generally implemented in medium- and large-scale wireless LAN deployments. Because access points are basically insecure and untrusted devices, they should be separated from other network segments by a firewall device.

Explanation: Operation in the UNII bands automatically makes 802.11a devices incompatible with all other devices complying with the other 802.11 series of standards. The reason for this incompatibility is simple: systems using 5-GHz frequencies do not communicate with systems using 2.4 -GHz frequencies.

Explanation: SATA specifications and hardware permit only one device on each SATA cable. Multiple cable connections are available on the SATA controller for expansion.

Explanation: When a manufacturer uses the term “boxed”, they generally mean everything you would need to install the device. In this case, the memory would be separate.

Explanation: In a Public cloud, services are available to the public over a standard internet connection. The most recognizable public cloud services are the email services provided by Google and Yahoo.

With this service, you as the customer, rent hardware, including servers, storage, and networking, and can use these hardware services virtually. You are responsible for your own application installations, data management, and backup. Which service category does this describe?

Explanation: When IaaS, which stands for infrastructure as a service, is offered the customer rents hardware, including servers, storage, and networking, and can use these hardware services virtually. Customers are also responsible for their own application installations, data management, and backup. IaaS is typically called for in situations where fast-changing applications are in place or to test software. Alternatively, this solution is used by startup businesses aiming at saving money by not having to invest in hardware. SaaS is Software As A Service and is all-inclusive. PaaS is Platform As A Service where customers rent hardware, operating systems, and some applications that could support other applications the customer may install. This solution is popular with software developers as it allows for relatively cheap software testing over multiple platforms. BaaS doesn’t exist and so could stand for Bad answer as a Service.

Cloud computing provides multiple advantages. Which of the below elements is BEST described by a service’s ability to be scaled up or down as the needs changes for a particular user without requiring hardware changes that could be costly for the customer?

Explanation: To some extent, all these elements could apply however the question asks for the BEST description. When CompTIA puts BEST in the question that means other answers could make sense but are not the best alternative. In this case, since Rapid Elasticity refers to the ability to scale layers of services, such as applications, storage space, or a number of users, etc. it is the “winner”. Resource Pooling, Measured Service, and On-Demand can all imply some level of scalability but none of them as spot-on as Rapid Elasticity.

You have a platform running a secure Windows installation with firewall and anti-malware services. What security will you need in order to install virtual OSes to this platform?

Explanation: When you install a VMM and VM of a PC, the virtual machines are not protected by the PC’s programs. As a result, each VM needs its own firewall and anti-malware services to be installed.

A customer called complaining that his system continuously locks. The problem has persisted for several days. What is the first step in troubleshooting this problem?

Explanation: Showing the technician exactly what is happening is the best way for the technician to determine the problem.  By the user recreating the problem, the tech will have a better understanding of problem determination and problem-solving.

Explanation: Never overlook the obvious. Perform problem determination by checking all connections first, and that includes power connections. If the PC is plugged in, a faulty AC outlet would cause a dead computer.

A user reports that their system occasionally boots to a blank screen and sometimes doesn’t respond once the system turns off the monitor. What do you do first to troubleshoot?

Explanation: First, check the Event Viewer logs to determine the cause of the issue. It is best practice to first perform noninvasive observations before replacing hardware or testing RAM.

You have a customer who calls you to report that her computer shuts down and reboots on its own when she tries to start it. What is one possible cause?

CompTIA A+ is considered one of the major certifications for starting a career in IT. It is the Industry Standard that jet launches IT careers in the digital world. The CompTIA A+ (220-1102) Core 2 Certification enables you to perform spontaneous critical IT support tasks and end-point management.

The exam covers the configuration of the device operating systems, that is, Mac, Linux, Android, iOS, Chrome OS, and Windows, along with the administration of cloud and client based softwares. It comprises a total of 90 questions which includes Multiple choice, multiple response, performance based, and drag and drop questions.

The professionals holding this certification are Quality problem solvers. They provide support for the on-demand technologies involving Cloud, Security, Data Management, and more. It enables you to demonstrate core security skills.

Q1 :You want to implement a firewall in your network. The firewall should process each request coming from an outside network and should make a rule-based decision whether to allow or deny the request. Which type of firewall should be used in this scenario?

Option D is incorrectbecause the bootrec/rebuildbcdcommand checks for windows installation currently not in the BCD store and provides an option to add them into the BCD store.

Corrupted device drivers may cause issues while the system boots up. In windows, it is commonly referred to as blue screen of death(BSOD) while in Linux and MacOS it is referred to as akernel panic.

Q13:A user is reporting that he is able to connect to resources in the organization with the IP address but not with their name.What could be the possible issue here?

DNS(Domain name system) resolves named resources into IP addresses that are connected in the network, so if a user is able to connect with the IP address but not with the resource name, then either dns server is down and/or it is not properly configured in users machine.

Q15:Mike uses a laptop for his office work and wants to connect to a network wirelessly but does not have that functionality on his machine? How would you resolve this issue?

Q18:Jack is using a laser printer for his document. He reported that the printer is producing repeating horizontal lines or white space. What could be the possible issue here?

Q19:You have recently installed a new second hard drive on a workstation, but the drive is not visible in explorer. What steps would you take to fix the issue? (Select all that apply)

Q20:One of the workstations on Windows 10 OS recently got its video driver updated but after the driver updated the blue screen of death (BSOD) started appearing while the system booted. Which of the following options is best suited for rolling back the driver update?

Option A is incorrect because writing down the password manually in the notebook may help you in recovering the password, but it is not full proof as the notebook can also be misplaced.

In image level backup all the files and directories along with the operating system on a system are backed up and then can be restored on a blank drive.

Q24 : Mike, an employee in zen corporation, is trying to update his workstation password but he is constantly getting messages stating that “password must be minimum 12 characters long and must contain alphanumeric characters”. Which policy enables an organization to set up restrictions about the minimum complexity of passwords in the organization ?

Did you get all the questions right? You are on the right trajectory. These free questions on CompTIA A+ 220-1102 (Core 2) certification must have given you the assessment on the exam and some of the concepts that need to be covered for passing the exam. Additionally, by taking CompTIA A+ core 2 practice tests, you can clear the actual exam within the first attempt.

About Dharmalingam NDharmalingam.N holds a master degree in Business Administration and writes on a wide range of topics ranging from technology to business analysis. He has a background in Relationship Management. Some of the topics he has written about and that have been published include; project management, business analysis and customer engagement.

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Technicians need to familiarize themselves with strategies, features, and techniques that can help ensure a safe and secure small office/home office (SOHO) environment. In this course, discover home router security settings to configure on a SOHO network. Explore wireless security considerations, including changing the service set identifier (SSID), disabling SSID broadcast and encryption settings, disabling guest access, and changing channels. Next, discover firewall security features such as disabling unused ports and port forwarding or mapping. You"ll also learn to install and configure browsers and relevant security settings. Next you"ll explore browser installations, extensions, and plug-ins, as well as password managers and certificates. Lastly, explore Internet browsing security features and techniques, including pop-up blockers, clearing browsing data, clearing cache, private-browsing mode, sign-in/browser data synchronization, and ad blockers. Once you have completed this course, you"ll be able to configure security settings for browsers and SOHO networks. This course is part of a series that will help you prepare for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) certification exam.

The CompTIA A+ certification is for those who are looking to begin their IT career journey. This learning path maps to the first of two required CompTIA A+ exams, Core 1 (220-1001), and covers topics such as hardware, storage, and physical networking. For more information about CompTIA A+, visit the organization’s website.

Note: These Total Seminars courses cover the topics tested on the CompTIA A+ certification exams. For information on additional study resources—including practice tests, lab simulations, books, and discounted exam vouchers—visit totalsem.com/linkedin. LinkedIn Learning members receive special pricing.

A. You need to test in an enclosed, private space where you can maintain a strong and stable internet connection, prevent interruptions, and protect the integrity of your exam content.

A. To ensure your system will work with our software, first, review the minimum system requirements. Next, perform a system test and download the OnVUE software prior to your exam day.

On exam day, before your exam begins, we strongly recommend re-checking your system by running another system test. If you experience any issues, please log back into your account to reschedule your exam. If you can’t reschedule your exam, use the chat feature to ask your program-specific customer service team for assistance.

A. Once you’ve verified your computer meets system requirements, sign into your account. Select the exam you want to take, then choose the “home or office” option. Follow the remaining prompts to schedule your exam appointment. You will receive a confirmation email with your appointment details and important information for exam day.

A. Your proctor will make this decision prior to starting your exam. During check-in, you will be asked to take photos of your testing space(opens in new window), which the proctor will review.

For a positive outcome, make sure your space is private and secure. Clear the room of any preparation materials or unauthorized items. Unplug and/or turn off additional monitors (and, if applicable, systems). Any visible materials on the walls—including sticky notes, whiteboards or chalkboards, etc.—may be inspected by your proctor, and we may ask you to remove any such material.

A. Yes, however, we don’t recommend it. Test-takers typically have a better experience with personal computers. This is because employer-issued computers are more likely to have firewalls, VPNs, and other security policies that may block video streaming during the exam. If you must use an employer-issued computer to take your exam, it’s crucial to review the technical requirements.

A. We don’t recommend it. Hotspot technology is not ideal for maintaining a reliable and consistent connection. To ensure optimal performance on exam day, perform a system test.

Refer to your confirmation, reschedule or reminder email, which might have a Check-in to start exam link. If it does, you can click this link from 30 minutes before to 15 minutes past your appointment start time.

Click the “Sign in now” button on this page or your test sponsor’s external landing page. Once you’ve logged into your account, your exam will appear under Open Online Exams. Select the exam link and then select Check-in.

A. To check in for your exam, log in to your account no earlier than 30 minutes before your scheduled appointment time. Once logged in, you should see the Check-in button. If it"s not visible within 15 minutes of your exam appointment time, contact your program-specific customer service team via chat.

A. Once you"ve completed the required check-in steps and have completed taking photos of your face, ID and environment, you will see the following message: You are almost done with the check-in process. Next, you’ll be placed in a queue and will wait momentarily while a proctor reviews your check-in steps. Please be aware, other candidates may be ahead of you in line. The OnVUE application should tell you where you are in queue. Most exams are launched by a proctor within 15 minutes of the appointment start time.

Any delay might mean there’s a problem with your photos or internet connection. For issues with your photos, a proctor will attempt to reach you over chat or via your cell phone. You may not recognize the phone number, which will either have a 617 US area code or say “Pearson VUE” on the caller ID, but please answer so we can assist. If we haven"t contacted you within 30 minutes, we may have lost connection to you. In such cases, please contact our customer service team via Pearson OnVUE Support live chat. As a reminder, mobile devices must be kept out of arm’s reach during the testing sessions.

A. No. You cannot allow anyone else—including children, roommates, colleagues, etc.—to enter or even pass through your testing space once you’ve started your exam.

A. Should you experience technical difficulties during your exam, simply raise your hand using the OnVUE application at the top of your screen and a proctor will assist you. If for some reason this is unavailable, you can get help via the chat button on this page or the OnVUE download page.

Most issues can be avoided by completing a system test and ensuring that you meet all system requirements in advance of testing. Common issues include an unreliable internet connection and third-party applications trying to run during your exam. We strongly recommend that candidates confirm that all applications have been closed and that there is a sufficient and reliable internet connection prior to testing.

A. In general, all personal belongings must remain out of arm’s reach during your exam. However, if your exam program allows personal belongings or testing tools like calculators during an exam, you will find that information in the program-specific policies section of this page.

A. Each exam program establishes its own break policies. If your program allows breaks, you’ll find that information in the program-specific policies section of this page.

A. Yes. Proctors may interrupt exams and take action if they witness any suspicious behavior or rule violations. They may need to offer a reminder (e.g., no talking) or investigate something (e.g., show me the room, your desk, etc.).

A. Examples of prohibited behaviors include, but are not limited to, failing to follow proctor instructions, looking off the screen, mumbling or speaking aloud, covering your mouth or face, using unauthorized materials (e.g., mobile phones, recording equipment, writing materials), interacting with third parties intentionally or unintentionally, or leaving the webcam view.

A. Unless it’s during a scheduled break built into your exam, leaving the webcam view for any reason or duration, even if you have already completed the exam questions, will result in your exam session being terminated and the exam result being invalidated.

A. You may keep your mobile phone nearby, out of arm’s reach, during your exam in case the proctor needs to call you. Any mobile phone use other than speaking with a proctor is grounds for exam revocation.

When a proctor needs to reach you, they will call, not text. The number will always display as 617-379-0635, and/or caller ID may identify the number as “Pearson VUE.” If this information appears, please answer the call. If your phone rings and the call is not from a Pearson VUE proctor, do not answer it.

If you receive a text or other notification, ignore it and continue testing. If you wish to silence your phone, alert the proctor so they know you are accessing your phone only to silence notifications.

A. At this time, OnVUE exams may only be taken on desktop and laptop computers running Windows or macOS operating systems that meet these minimum specifications. OnVUE does not support the use of tablets or touchscreens. As noted above, mobile devices are not allowed and should be placed out of arm’s reach.

A. If a disconnection occurs, the exam timer will pause, and a proctor will attempt to contact you either through your computer or by phone. Note: You must respond or your testing session will be revoked.

Complete any necessary check-in steps and then click Next. Your exam should reload and begin. If your exam does not relaunch, contact our customer service team via chat for additional support.

A. Yes. Even when the testing computer is locked down during an exam, you may still use CTRL+ and CTRL- to magnify content up to 200%. Do not use touchscreen technology at any time during your exam.

A. Because scratch paper or note boards are not allowed when taking an OnVUE exam, some exam programs allow you to use a built-in digital whiteboard to do scratch work or take notes(Opens in new window).

A. Yes. Because of its remote nature, testing with OnVUE requires that candidates agree to additional policies that help protect exam integrity. These include (but are not limited to) consenting to recording and monitoring throughout the exam, along with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) and other advanced technology techniques. Test-takers must accept these policies during the registration process prior to scheduling an exam.

A. No, as the rescheduling function cannot be used to change the exam delivery method. Instead, if you wish to change the delivery method, you must cancel the original appointment and then schedule a new one.

Breakdown: Port replicators as well as docking stations allow you to keep peripheral devices such as external monitors and keyboards plugged in when you need to take the notebook with you. Both devices, in essence, replicate the peripheral ports of the notebook in order to allow this. Docking stations include additional features such as slots for full-size desktop PCI cards, additional media/accessory bays, CD drives and other expansion slots.

Breakdown: Some notebooks have a security locking slot on the outside of the case typically indicated by a symbol of a padlock next to it. You can use this slot to attach a cable lock with the other end looped around a fixed, sturdy object.

Breakdown: A local area network (LAN) is a specifically designed configuration of computers and other devices located within a confined area, such as a home or office building, and connected by wires or radio waves that permit connected devices to communicate with one another or share data and services.

Breakdown: In a star topology, each node is connected to a central network connectivity device such as a hub or a switch. This device then distributes the information packets it receives to the star’s nodes. In a star topology, each node has its own wired or wireless connection to the hub.

Breakdown: In a bus topology, each node is connected to the next by a direct line so that a continuous line is formed. There’s no central point in such an arrangement. Each node is simply connected to the next one on either side of it. The ends of the bus are closed off with a terminator device to prevent signal reflection which could generate interference on the line.

Breakdown: In a ring topology, each node is connected to two nodes on either side of it such that all nodes form a continuous loop. Communication is enabled by passing a token around the ring to each node. When a node has the token, it can transmit data. The token packet travels in a circle or ring in a single direction even though the nodes are physically arranged as a star.

Breakdown: In a mesh topology, all nodes in the mesh have independent connections to all other nodes in the mesh. This configuration makes it very fault tolerant and scalable. Most mesh topologies aren’t fully meshed due to cost. More common is a partial mesh topology with some redundant links.

Breakdown: The benefit of the star topology is that because each node has its own connection to the central network connectivity device, when a single connection fails, it doesn’t affect the communication ability of other nodes connected to the same central device. If the central device fails, however, none of the nodes connected to it are able to communicate on the network.

Breakdown: A Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a high-speed data and voice transmission line that still uses telephone wires for transmission but carries the digital data at frequencies well above those used for voice transmission. Voice and data can be transmitted at the same time over a DSL connection.

Breakdown: You can now connect to the Internet either through your smartphone or through your laptop using a cellular network PC card. 4G cellular networks are capable of speeds of 100 Mbps while and 1 Gbps while stationary using Long Term Evolution (LTE) technology.

Breakdown: Modems are devices that enable you to connect your computer to another network through a phone line. The modem in the sending computer must convert the digital signals within the computer to analog signals that are compatible with the phone system. On the other end, the receiving modem must then convert analog signals back into digital signals.

Breakdown: Load balancers are devices that distribute networking or computing workloads across multiple resources. A load balancing router can dynamically adjust network routes to balance the utilization across networks.

Breakdown: A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between computers on a network and the Internet. Before sending a packet, the proxy server replaces the original sender’s IP address and other identifying information with its own. When the response arrives, the proxy server looks up the original sender’s information, updates the incoming packet, and forwards it to the client. This allows for anonymous access to the Internet, thus providing an added layer of security.

Many proxy servers also provide caching functions which speed up content serving so that clients don’t need to constantly hit the Internet for web pages that already reside on the local network.

Breakdown: On a PC, the modem provides a connection for a regular phone line which is an RJ-11 connection – the same type of connection used for a standard phone wall outlet. In addition, a modem usually has an Rj-11 connection for a telephone.

Breakdown: A bridge is an internetworking device that connects two LANs and makes them appear to be one or segments a larger LAN into two smaller pieces. Bridges can filter traffic thus preventing local traffic from one segment from going beyond the segment.

You’re wiring Ethernet in a star topology. What’s the internetworking device you use to take the signal transmitted from one computer and propagate it to all the other computers in the network?

Breakdown: Fiber optic cables carry light-based data through strands of glass or plastic and is currently the fastest (and most expensive) network transmission medium.

Breakdown: Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) uses four pairs of wires and is typically used to connect network nodes. The wire pairs are twisted together to prevent crosstalk (interference).

Which network medium contains a layer of braided wire or foil between the core and the outside insulating layer, plus another layer of plastic or rubberized material that separates the central core from the shielding layer?

Breakdown: Coaxial cables (“coax” for short) contain a layer of braided wire or foil between the core and the outside insulating layer. The shielding layer helps protect the data from EMI problems. Coaxial cabling is typically found in older networks.

Breakdown: The standard BNC connector is considered a 2-pin connector – pin 1 is the center conductor, which carries the data signal and pin 2 is the tinned copper braid, which provides the ground.

Which medium might also have letters after the number to indicate the cable’s impedance (specified in ohms) and to indicate whether the inner conductor is solid or stranded?

Breakdown: Coaxial cable comes in many variations and is specified by the RG standard. RG cable might also have letters after the number to indicate cable’s impedance (specified in ohms) and whether the inner conductor is solid or stranded.

Breakdown: Fiber optic cable is used by telephone and cable companies to deliver information across long distances. It’s also used as the backbone for networks.

Breakdown: Since fiber optic cable doesn’t carry electrical signals it’s safe to use in hazardous, high-voltage environments. It can be used where explosive fumes are present without danger of ignition, however, not all fiber optic cable is plenum grade. For use in plenum installations, fiber optic cable must have an outer material made from some kind of fire-resistant material such as PVC. Such cables are sold as plenum grade fiber optic cables.

Breakdown: A cable testing device can be used to test cables and network connections. It’s a highly versatile device, which can be used to test a wide variety of cables and connections. You can purchase cable testing devices for your particular LAN or one that’s compatible with multiple network types.

Breakdown: In addition to testing physical cables and connections, a cable testing device can also test and verify a wide variety of network functions.

Breakdown: The basic electrical measurement functions of a multimeter (both analog and digital) are voltage, resistance, and current. Typically, a computer technician will need to measure voltage (both DC and AC) and resistance (mostly in terms of continuity) in the course of his/her work. Electrical current will seldom, if ever, be something that needs to be measured.

Breakdown: Subnet masks are used to identify the network-ID portion of an IP address. Subnet masks allow additional addresses to be implemented within a given address space. Each IP network class has a default subnet mask. The default submask for a Class C network is: 255.255.255.0.

Breakdown: On a TCP/IP network, if a computer doesn’t know how to deliver a packet, it hands off the packet to the default gateway (usually a router) to deliver. This happens every time a computer needs to deliver a packet to a network other than its own.

Breakdown: The network 169.254.0.0. is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). Windows 2000 and later operating systems automatically generate an address in this range if they are configured to obtain an IPv4 address from a DHCP server and are unable to contact one. Addresses in this range are private and can’t be used on the Internet.

Breakdown: A MAC address, also referred to as a physical address, adapter address, or Ethernet address, identifies a device on a LAN. Part of the address contains the manufacturer’s identifier with the rest being a unique number. No two NICs have the same identifying code. MAC addresses are absolute, unlike IP addresses which are subject to change.

Breakdown: The IP version uses 128-bit addresses. These addresses are written and displayed in the hexadecimal-equivalent values for each of their 16 bytes. Like IPv4 addresses, IPv6 are also composed of two parts: the network ID and the host ID.

Breakdown: The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to resolve host names to IP addresses and to find computers such as Web and e-mail servers. A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) is typically composed of three parts: a host name, a domain name, and a top-level domain name. The “www” part is the host’s name or an alias for the actual name.

Breakdown: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an automated mechanism to assign IP addresses dynamically to clients from a pool of possible addresses called a scope. Using DHCP to assign IP configuration to client computers on your network simplifies administration and avoids the problem of IP information being entered incorrectly in the case of static IP assignment.

Breakdown: TCP is connection-oriented and reliable. It is similar to delivering a letter by registered mail. Inside the letter, each page is numbered so that it can be read in the proper order. When the message is received, the sender is notified that it arrived properly at its destination. If it doesn’t, then the receiver notifies the sender to resend the message.

SSH was designed as a replacement for insecure remote shells, which sent data (including passwords) in plain text. Which of the following is one of those insecure remote shells?

Breakdown: Secure Shell (SSH) exchanges data between two network nodes over a secure channel. SSH was designed as a replacement for Telnet and other insecure remote shells, which sent data (including passwords) in plain text. These shells left the data open for interception.

Which email protocol is used to send and receive e-mail messages between e-mail servers and used by e-mail client software to send messages to the server, but never used by clients to retrieve email from the server?

Breakdown: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send and receive e-mail messages between email servers. It is also used by e-mail client software, such as MS Outlook, to send messages to the email server. SMTP is never used by a client computer to retrieve email from a server. Other protocols such as POP3 control the retrieval of e-mail messages.

Which IEEE 802.11 standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range, has a data speed of up to 20+ Mbps, and has a range of 45 meters indoors and 90 meters outdoors?

Breakdown: The 802.11g standard is backwards-compatible with 802.11b which transmits data at 11 Mbps. 802.11g has a higher throughput at 20+ Mbps and some devices advertise speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Devices supporting 802.11g have a transmission range of up to 4 meters indoors and 90 meters outdoors.

Which IEEE 802.11 standard operates in the 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency range, has a data speed of up to 600 Mbps, and has a range of 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors?

Breakdown: Devices supporting 802.11n can transmit data at up to 600 Mbps in either the 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz band. The transmission range is up to 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors.

Breakdown: The 802.11 standard defines an access point (AP) as a device that functions as a transparent bridge between the wireless client and the wired network.

Breakdown: Though there are several configuration steps that you should take to adequately secure a wireless router, but at an absolute minimum, you should enable some form of data encryption method. It is advisable to select the most secure transmission encryption method compatible with the clients on the LAN. Options might include WEP, WPA Personal WPA2, WPA Enterprise, RADIUS, and 802.11i.

Breakdown: Network Address Translation (NAT) devices correlate internal and external addresses. A single public IP address is assigned to the device and each private node is assigned a unique IP address that is not visible to the public network. The NAT device (router) makes certain that inbound and outbound packets arrive at the correct destination. NAT expands the limited number of IP addresses that can be used directly on the Internet and also provides a layer of security to private networks.

Breakdown: On larger networks where public access to resources such as a Web server, e-mail server, or FTP server are required, a perimeter network is established where these resources can reside. The perimeter network, also referred to as a demilitarized zone (DMZ), is set up between the private network (intranet) and the Internet. Computers in the DMZ are accessible to computers on both the Internet as well as the intranet. Typically, computers within the DMZ have limited access to computers on the intranet while direct connections between the Internet and the internal network are blocked.

Breakdown: A firewall is a device that controls traffic between a public network and a private internal network. Firewalls examine the contents of network traffic and permit or block transmission based on rules. Firewalls vary in price and complexity and use one or more security techniques such as stateful packet inspection, access control lists, and basic packet filtering.

Breakdown: You should always avoid using jargon where plain language suffices. You aren’t out to impress the user with techno-babble. You need to speak clearly about the issue and implement the appropriate solution. Explain any acronyms and abbreviations you use.

Breakdown: You must match your communication level with your customer’s abilities. By assessing the customer’s competence level you can deliver the message appropriately.

You and a colleague respond to a user who’s having a problem. As the user is describing the problem to your colleague, you roll your eyes. Which guidelines for professional communication are you not following? (Choose all that apply)

Breakdown: Behaving in such a manner in the presence of a customer violates multiple guidelines for professional communication, but the two primary ones that are violated in this example are respecting the customer and considering the total message. Rolling one’s eyes in the presence of a customer is highly disrespectful and sends a hostile message.

Breakdown: Air-quality is important for both humans as well as electronic equipment. Dust and dirt can accumulate inside computers and block air vents that can cause overheating. Hard disk drives, for example, are prone to failure in high-heat environments. Data recovery from damaged drives can be an expensive process.

Breakdown: You should periodically inspect ventilation holes and components for dust. Use compressed-air or an air compressor to push dust and other matter out of the enclosure. A link-free cloth can also be used to clean dust and debris from ventilation openings.

Breakdown: The MSDS personal protective C rating recommends wearing goggles, gloves, and other protective gear when using this product. This is the most hazardous rating and extreme caution must be used when handling and disposing of such materials.

Breakdown: There are six stages in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model with the first being to identify the problem. The sixth, and final stage, is to document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Breakdown: While testing the theory to determine the actual cause of the problem you will be inspecting and testing components related to the problem. This may include examining connections, power being turned on, and visual and audible indicators. You may need to consult vendor documentation for descriptions of status lights and other indicators.

What is the name of the Web site containing problem and solution references for the Microsoft client operating systems, such as Windows 2000 Professional, Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7, as well as many other Microsoft applications?

Breakdown: For help with a problem concerning software or hardware on a computer running a Microsoft operating system, an excellent troubleshooting reference is Microsoft’s Help and Support Center site. A component of the Help and Support Center is the Microsoft Knowledge Base, which explains many Microsoft error messages.

Which of the following types of software is responsible for accepting input from devices such as a keyboard, mouse, scanner, or smart card reader, and creating output on devices such as a monitor, printer, or speakers?

Breakdown: An operating system is a set of software instructions that control the computer and run other programs on the computer. Applications are installed on top of the operating system and work with the operating system and the computer’s hardware such as the monitor, mouse, keyboard, printer, and other devices.

Breakdown: A graphical user interface (GUI) has icons or menus that you can click or select to perform a function or run a program. Along with a keyboard and a pointing device such as a mouse, you are able to interact with screen elements when working with a GUI.

Breakdown: The Windows 7 Enterprise edition is designed for large, global organizations with complex IT infrastructures and is available only through Microsoft’s volume licensing programs.

Breakdown: The Windows 7 Home Basic edition is only available in emerging markets. It’s highly unlikely that you will encounter it in the course of your work as an IT professional.

Breakdown: The Aero desktop GUI with Flip 3D is not available in Windows Vista Home Basic along with several other advanced features only available in the higher-end Windows Vista editions.

Breakdown: Multiprocessor support is found in the Windows XP Professional edition. The Professional version is designed for the business user. The feature sets of these editions vary significantly because business organizations need to control and secure their client computers more than the typical home user.

Breakdown: The Windows notification area displays icons for system and program applications that are running but have no desktop presence. The time and volume icons are displayed in the notification area.

Breakdown: The “/a:h” file attributes switch with option to display hidden files combined with the “/o:n” file sort switch and option to display files in alphabetical order.

Breakdown: A hypervisor, or virtual machine manager, is the core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host. The hypervisor controls and allocates the host machine’s resources to give each guest operating system what it needs while making sure that the different VMs (virtual machines) on the host machine do not interfere with each other.

Breakdown: Despite virtualization having some benefits when it comes to security, they are still vulnerable to malware attacks, user errors, and external attacks just like a standalone computer. VMs still require firewalls, antivirus software, and user security measures just like ordinary desktops on the network.

Breakdown: Task Manager is a Windows GUI utility that provides information about the applications, processes, and services that are running on your computer. The Performance tab within Task Manager displays a dynamic representation of the most common performance indicators for your computers such as CPU and page file usage, number of threads, handles, and processes among others.

Breakdown: In Windows 7 and Windows Vista, DirectX Diagnostic (dxdiag.exe) is a utility you can use to see the status of your DirectX installation, however, unlike in Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP, you are unable to test and troubleshoot video- or sound-related problems.

Breakdown: The Application tab in Task Manager displays the status of applications running on your computer. You can end an application, switch to a running application, or start an application from this tab.

Breakdown: The Processes tab in Task Manager displays information about the processes that are running on your computer. Information about the process’s percentage of CPU usage and the amount of memory the process is using is displayed. You can end processes from this tab, which comes in handy if a process is consuming too much in the way of computing resources.

Breakdown: The Recovery tab in a service’s Properties dialog box allows you to configure the computer’s response when a service fails, including various actions depending on the number of failures, which includes specifying a program that the operating system should run when a service failure occurs.

Breakdown: The Dependencies tab in the service’s Properties dialog box specifies the services that a service depends on to function correctly as well as the services which depend on this service in order to function.

Breakdown: In Windows 7 the Devices and Printers window provides a central location where you can view and access all of your computer’s devices. You can view detailed information about each device, determine if each device is working properly, and connect network devices and printers that were not added automatically.

Breakdown: If a device is not yet Device Stage-enabled, the AutoPlay dialog box will open when you connect the device to your computer. AutoPlay provides general options for interacting with devices.

True or false? If a device is not yet Device Stage-enabled, double-clicking its icon in the Devices and Printers window opens a specialized page with icons and options; this is an XML “page” built by the device manufacturer.

Breakdown: In the Devices and Printers window, double-clicking a device not supported by Device Stage will open the Properties dialog box for that device.

In which power state does the computer take all current applications running in RAM, save them to the systems swap partition on the hard disk, and turn the computer’s power off?

Breakdown: During hibernation mode, the computer takes all current applications running in RAM, saves them in the swap partition on the hard disk, and then turns the notebook’s power off. All components of the computer are turned off. As a result, the Hibernate power state requires zero power. The OS is restored faster from this state than from a shutdown, but more slowly than from the Sleep power state.

Breakdown: Power consumption is most important with portable computers that get their power from rechargeable batteries, but even on desktops effective power management can save energy and therefore money for the user or organization.

Breakdown: The Disk Management utility allows you to alter existing partitions on a disk. You can extend a partition if there is unallocated space next to it on the disk. You can also shrink a partition to free up space if the partition is not full.

Breakdown: To share files or folders with other users on a network, you use the Share with command to select users that you wish to give access to your files or folders.

Breakdown: The Wake on LAN feature allows you to configure a computer, such as a print server, that is in a power saving mode to “wake up” when the network card receives a connection request.

These sample questions are simple and basic questions that represent likeness to the real CompTIA 220-901 exam questions. To assess your readiness and performance with real time scenario based questions, we suggest you prepare with our Premium CompTIA A+ Certification Practice Exam. When you solve real time scenario based questions practically, you come across many difficulties that give you an opportunity to improve.

01. A technician is building a new PC and notices that it has 8 DIMM sockets labeled 0 through 7. Four are white and four are blue. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

02. A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

03. The finance department has hired a new employee who works on payroll data spreadsheets. Which of the following items should the IT department install on the employee’s monitor prior to deploying it?

04. A technician has noticed that a client has an unsecured wireless network. Which of the following is the BEST security encryption type to protect the wireless network from intrusion?

06. On Monday, a user notices that the PC being used is not keeping correct time. Other users are not having this issue. The user’s PC had a memory upgrade the previous Friday. The user states that the PC was powered off all weekend. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST in troubleshooting this issue?

07. A technician is installing an additional memory module in a laptop. Which of the following components should the technician remove to help mitigate the threat of ESD damage to the DIMM?

09. A company upgraded their cabling from CAT5 to CAT6. A technician is tasked with replacing all the patch cords to match the new cabling. The technician has to make patch cords to the proper lengths. The technician is supplied with the CAT6 cable and a crimper but needs to order the proper cable ends. Which of the following should be ordered?

10. A laptop is setup at a podium for a presentation but is set to extended desktop. The presenter would like it to show exactly what the laptop screen is showing. Which of the following would be the QUICKEST way to accomplish this?

This website is using a security service to protect itself from online attacks. The action you just performed triggered the security solution. There are several actions that could trigger this block including submitting a certain word or phrase, a SQL command or malformed data.

A technician is tasked with selecting components to build a computer that will be used for computer-aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following components are the BEST choices? (Select TWO).

Video editing workstations require the fastest hard drive access times with large storage capacity. Which of the following hard disk setups would be MOST ideal for the described computer?

A user wants to extend a PCS capacity by connecting external devices. Which of the following connectors will allow the user to accomplish this? (Select TWO).

A small company needs to print several color copies of the same contract to go to various departments and customers. Which of the following printers will be the QUICKEST?

A computer technician is responding to a call about a printer that is causing streaks to appear on every printout. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A technician replaces a defective 250GB hard drive in a desktop with a 2TB hard drive. After installation, the computer detects the new 2TB drive as a 250GB drive. Which of the following should the technician do to fix this issue?